ZOOL 304

Study Questions

Here are questions, intended to be similar to potential exam questions, to consider as you read the text.  

A few of these questions, marked with *, apply only to specific text-book examples and are intended simply to motivate careful reading.  These * questions will NOT be included on the exam.

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Answers to study questions.

Notes for chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Study questions for Prologue and Chapter 1.  (Notes for Chapter 1)

1. "Sexual cannibalism" refers to:
   1. A male animal eliminating other, competing males by eating them.
   2. A female animal eliminating other, competing females by eating them
   3. A parent animal killing and eating offspring of the opposite sex.
   4. A female animal killing and eating a male, after mating.
   5. A male animal killing and eating a female, after mating.
       
2. Which pair of circumstances below would most strongly increase the probability that male submission to sexual cannibalism would evolve as an adaptive reproductive strategy?  (Be prepared to explain or justify your answer.)
   1. Multiple mating opportunities for most males.
   2. Very few mating opportunities for most males.
   3. Reliable nutritional resources (prey) for most females.
   4. Limited nutritional resources (prey) for most females.
       
3. *Which of the following fish species is prey to the other two, in the Aripo River watershed of Trinidad?
   1. Guppies (Poecilia reticulata)
   2. Large cichlids (Crenicichla alta)
   3. Small killifish (Rivulus hartii)
       
      
4. Thought question:  Explain how early maturation and small mature size might be adaptations to predation by a large predator.
    
5. Under strong selection, how quickly may adaptively significant traits evolve?  (Obviously, this may depend on the particular traits in question.  Choose an answer based on the example in the textbook prologue.)
   1. millions of years.
   2. thousands of years.
   3. hundreds of years.
   4. tens of years, or even less.
       
6. *Pentastomids are parasites of:
   1. herbivorous insects.
   2. various vertebrates.
   3. vascular plants.
   4. algae.
       
7. *According to the textbook, pentastomids are most closely related to:
   1. earthworms.
   2. spiders.
   3. centipedes.
   4. tardigrades.
   5. branchiuran fish lice.
       
8. *Evidence for this pentastomid relationship comes from:
   1. comparative anatomy
   2. reproductive behavior
   3. DNA sequence
   4. fossils
       
      
9. *Plethodontids are:
   1. insects.
   2. fish.
   3. worm-like parasites.
   4. salamanders.
       
10. The constraint of irreversibility is implied when natural selection:
    1. acts rapidly over a few generations.
    2. persists steadily for hundreds of millions of years.
    3. involves the relocation of body parts to serve new and critical functions.
        
11. *Which example is cited by the text as evidence for the power of natural selection?
    1. adult size and maturation rate of guppies
    2. taxonomic affinities of pentastomids
    3. irreversibility of the evolution of inner-ear bones
        
12. *Which example is cited by the text as evidence for the importance of history?
    1. sexual cannabilism by spiders
    2. adult size and maturation rate of guppies
    3. irreversibility of the evolution of inner-ear bones
        
13. MATCHING:  Which topics are of greatest interest to which sub-discipline of evolutionary biology?  (With apologies, the matches may overlap somewhat.)

14. "Two concepts and a link between them explain microevolution.  The two concepts are heritable variation in traits and variation in reproductive success among individuals within a population.  The link is the correlation between the two types of variation."   Neutral evolution occurs when this correlation is:
    1. positive.
    2. negative.
    3. zero (or approximately zero).
        
15. "You may have heard that evolution is concerned with survival of the fittest. That is a misleading half-truth.  Survival is important, but only in so far as it contributes to:
    1. speciation."
    2. microevolution."
    3. reproductive success."
    4. adaptation."
        
16. Thought question:  What does "correlation" mean?  [Operationally, what does it mean heritable variation to be correlated with reproductive success? What would you need to measure to determine that heritable variation was correlated with reproductive success?]
     
17. Which correlation provides a measure of heritability?
    1. offspring trait value with parent trait values
    2. reproductive success with parental trait values
    3. reproductive success with offspring trait values
    4. parental trait values with environmental variation
       
       
18. Which of the following is NOT necessary for adaptive evolution?
    1. heritable variation
    2. variation in reproductive success
    3. sexual reproduction
    4. a correlation between heritable variation and reproductive success
        
19. Which of following is LEAST SIMILAR in meaning to the phrase "adaptive evolution of a trait"?
    1. natural selection of heritable variation
    2. variation in reproductive success positively correlated with variation in trait value
    3. absence of a correlation between trait value and reproductive success
        
20. With a selective advantage of a few percent (text example, the gene for lactose tolerance), it may take several hundred generations for a rare allele to increase in frequency until it is the most common allele. This illustrates which of the following types of constraint on adaptation?
    1. sufficient time
    2. gene flow
    3. functional tradeoffs
    4. historical constraint
        
21. A local population (text example, the blue tit) may fail to evolve fitness to the local environment because individuals adapted to a neighboring but different environment keep immigrating into the region. This illustrates which of the following types of constraint on adaptation?
    1. sufficient time
    2. gene flow
    3. functional tradeoffs
    4. historical constraint
        
22. An advantageous change in one trait may not evolve because a change in that trait which would increase reproductive success is associated (whether by genetics or by basic physics) with change in some other trait that decreases reproductive success. This illustrates which of the following types of constraint on adaptation?
    1. sufficient time
    2. gene flow
    3. functional tradeoffs
    4. historical constraint
        
23. Some features in animal bodies appear to be "design flaws", reflecting the consequences of descent from an ancestral character state rather than any association with current reproductive success. This illustrates which of the following types of constraint on adaptation?
    1. sufficient time
    2. gene flow
    3. functional tradeoffs
    4. historical constraint
        

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 2.  (Notes for Chapter 2)

1. "Survival is only important, if it contributes to:
   1. speciation."
   2. microevolution."
   3. reproductive success."
   4. adaptation."
       
2. MATCHING:  

3. *Lotus corniculus is a:
   1. mollusc.
   2. bird.
   3. flowering plant.
   4. fungus.
       
4. For each pair below, which would be expected to increase the rate of adaptive microevolution?
   1. population size [ large / small ]
   2. variation [ lots / little ]
   3. selection [ strong / weak ]
   4. generation time [ long / short ]
           
5. Which type of selection acts through greater reproductive success of individuals closer to the population average?
   1. stabilizing selection
   2. directional selection
   3. disruptive selection
       
6. Which type of selection acts through greater reproductive success of individuals on one side of the population average?
   1. stabilizing selection
   2. directional selection
   3. disruptive selection
       
7. Which type of selection acts through reduced reproductive success of individuals close to the population average?
   1. stabilizing selection
   2. directional selection
   3. disruptive selection
       
8. Competition for access to mates (usually among males) is responsible for a process called:
   1. sexual cannibalism
   2. sexual reproduction
   3. sexual recombination
   4. sexual selection
       
9. Mate choice (usually by females) is responsible for a process called:
   1. sexual cannibalism
   2. sexual reproduction
   3. sexual recombination
   4. sexual selection
       
10. The "sexy son hypothesis" and the "handicap hypothesis" both relate to reasons underlying:
    1. competition for mates
    2. mate choice
        
11. Which type of selection involves traits for which the fitness contribution of one variant depends on the prevalence within the population of other variants?
    1. density-dependent selection
    2. density-independent selection
    3. frequency-dependent selection
    4. frequency-independent selection
        
12. Which type of selection involves traits which directly impact the maximal rate at which population size can increase?
    1. density-dependent selection
    2. density-independent selection
    3. frequency-dependent selection
    4. frequency-independent selection
        
13. Which type of selection occurs through differential rates of speciation and extinction?
    1. individual selection
    2. kin selection
    3. group selection
    4. species selection
        
14. Which type of selection is based on interactions among relatives, with fitness increased by assisting the reproduction of siblings, cousins, etc.?
    1. individual selection
    2. kin selection
    3. group selection
    4. species selection
        
15. Which type of selection is responsible for most adaptive features of most organisms?
    1. individual selection
    2. kin selection
    3. group selection
    4. species selection
        
16. Since selection is context-dependent, the selective value of a particular character-state for an organism depends on:
    1. the background of other traits in the organism, among which that character state occurs.
    2. the traits of conspecifics with which the organism interacts.
    3. particular features of the environment.
    4. all of the above.

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 3.  (Notes for Chapter 3)

1. "Fitness", as used in evolutionary biology, is a synonym for:
   1. natural selection.
   2. relative reproductive success.
   3. adaptation.
   4. probability of survival.
       
2. By definition, "neutral" alleles are those where allele differences are NOT correlated with differences in:
   1. fitness.
   2. genotype.
   3. phenotype.
   4. evolution.
       

Which pair of codons are synonymous? GGT and GTT GGT and GGC GGT and CGT GGT and GCT   Which codon substitution is "silent" (no change in the encoded protein)? CAG to CAC CAG to GAG CAG to CTG CAG to TAG

TTT Lys TTG Asn TTC Lys TTA Asn TGT Thr TGG Thr TGC Thr TGA Thr TCA Arg TCG Ser TCC Arg TCA Lys TAT Ile TAG Ile TAC Met TAA Ile GTT Gln GTG His GTC Gln GTA His GGT Pro GGG Pro GGC Pro GGA Pro GCT Arg GCG Arg GCC Arg GCA Arg GAT Leu GAG Leu GAC Leu GAA Leu CTT Glu CTG Asp CTC Glu CTA Asp CGT Ala CGG Ala CGC Ala CGA Ala CCT Gly CCG Gly CCC Gly CCA Gly CAT Val CAG Val CAC Val CAA Val ATT stop ATG Tyr ATC stop ATA Tyr AGT Ser AGG Ser AGC Ser AGA Ser ACT stop ACG Cys ACC Trp ACA Cys AAT Leu AAG Phe AAC Leu AAA Phe

 

5. Base substitutions at which codon position are most likely to yield neutral mutations?
   1. first position
   2. second position
   3. third position
       
6. Which of the following refers to a DNA sequences within a eucaryotic gene that is removed prior to translation into protein?
   1. synonymous substitution
   2. intron
   3. exon
   4. pseudogene
       
7. Different classes of DNA sequence evolve (accumulate molecular changes) at different rates.  Which of the following shows the fastest rate of evolutionary change?
   1. pseudogenes
   2. introns
   3. exons
       
8. Which of the following shows the slowest rate of evolutionary change?
   1. pseudogenes
   2. introns
   3. exons
       
9. Which of the following is responsible for non-random genetic change?
   1. selection
   2. mutation
   3. the "Mendelian lottery"
   4. genetic bottlenecks
   5. founder effects
       
10. Random genetic change in the genetic composition of a population [caused by statistical fluctuations] is called:
    1. natural selection.
    2. mutation.
    3. adaptation.
    4. genetic drift.
        
11. The "Mendelian lottery" refers to chance events during:
    1. directional selection.
    2. genetic bottlenecks.
    3. meiosis and fertilization.
    4. founder events.
        
12. The Hardy-Weinberg principle [see Chapter 4] predicts that under idealized circumstances, including indefinitely large population size, allele frequencies should not change over time.  However, the frequencies of neutral [or nearly neutral] alleles in real, finite populations are statistically expected to change.  This statistical expectation is called:
    1. natural selection.
    2. mutation.
    3. adaptation.
    4. genetic drift.
        
13. From one generation to the next, any given neutral allele is expected to:
    1. increase in frequency within the population.
    2. decrease in frequency within the population.
    3. either increase or decrease in frequency within the population, with equal probability.
    4. either increase or decrease in frequency within the population, depending on its initial frequency.
        
       
14. Given enough time, the expected result for genetic drift is that the frequency of any given neutral allele will:
    1. increase steadily until the allele is eliminated from the population.
    2. decrease steadily until the allele becomes fixed in the population.
    3. fluctuate randomly until the allele is either eliminated or fixed, with equal probability.
    4. fluctuate randomly until the allele is either eliminated or fixed, with a probability that depends on its initial frequency.
        
15. Over extended time, genetic drift acting alone [without mutation to introduce new alleles] is expected to:
    1. maintain genetic variation within a population.
    2. increase genetic variation within a population.
    3. reduce or eliminate genetic variation within a population.
        
16. Suppose that two populations begin by splitting from a single ancestral population, so that initially each has the same pattern of variation in many different alleles.  Over extended time, genetic drift acting alone [without mutation to introduce new alleles] is expected to:
    1. maintain genetic variation between the populations.
    2. increase genetic variation between the populations.  
    3. reduce or eliminate genetic variation between related populations.  
        
17. The statistically-predictable rate of evolutionary change in DNA or protein molecules is called:
    1. the molecular clock.
    2. the genetic bottleneck.
    3. neutral evolution.
    4. adaptive evolution.
        

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 4.  (Notes for Chapter 4)

1. *An example of a sexual organism with a predominantly haploid life cycle is a:
   1. bacterium.
   2. fruit fly.
   3. moss.
   4. rotifer.
       
2. *An example of an asexual organism with a predominantly haploid life cycle is a:
   1. bacterium.
   2. fruit fly.
   3. moss.
   4. rotifer.
       
3. *An example of a sexual organism with a predominantly diploid life cycle is a:
   1. bacterium.
   2. fruit fly.
   3. moss.
   4. rotifer.
       
4. *An example of an asexual organism with a predominantly diploid life cycle is a:
   1. bacterium.
   2. fruit fly.
   3. moss.
   4. rotifer.
       
5. In sexual organisms with a prodominantly diploid life cycle, the process of meiosis produces:
   1. haploid gametes.
   2. diploid gametes.
   3. haploid zygotes.
   4. diploid zygotes.
       
6. In sexual organisms with a prodominantly diploid life cycle, the process of fertilization produces:
   1. haploid gametes.
   2. diploid gametes.
   3. haploid zygotes.
   4. diploid zygotes.
       
7. In haploid asexual populations, genetic change from selection occurs _____ in diploid sexual populations.
   1. ... faster than ...
   2. ... slower than ...
   3. ... at the the same rate as ...
       
8. In the equation [ w  =  p² + 2pq x (1 + hs) + q² x (1 + s) ], the variables p and q stand for:
   1. mean fitness values.
   2. allele frequencies.
   3. selection coefficients.
   4. heritability values.
       
9. In the equation [ w  =  p² + 2pq x (1 + hs) + q² x (1 + s) ], the variable w stands for:
   1. mean fitness.
   2. allele frequency.
   3. selection coefficient.
   4. heritability.
       
10. In the equation [ w  =  p² + 2pq x (1 + hs) + q² x (1 + s) ], the variable s stand for:
    1. mean fitness.
    2. allele frequency.
    3. selection coefficient.
    4. heritability.
        
11. As shown in the Punnett square of Table 4.3, the expected Hardy-Weinberg genotype frequencies are found by _____ the frequencies of the alleles which comprise the genotype.
    1. ... adding ...
    2. ... subtracting ...
       
    3. ... multiplying ...
    4. ... dividing ...
        
12. If s is positive, and the fitness of genotype [aa] is 1+s , and other genotypes have fitness of 1, the frequency of allele a is expected to:
    1. increase.
    2. decrease.
    3. fluctuate with no expected trend.
    4. remain close to the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium value.
        
13. Regardless of whether an allele is dominant or recessive or advantageous or deleterious, the rate of genetic change from selection is most rapid when the allele's frequency is:
    1. very low.
    2. very high.
    3. intermediate.
        
       
14. In sexual diploids, the initial increase of a favored allele is much faster when the allele is:
    1. dominant.
    2. recessive.
        
15. In sexual diploids, the final elimination of a deleterious allele is faster when the allele is:
    1. dominant.
    2. recessive.
        
16. The statistical measure of variation (see chapter notes) which is equivalent to the square of the standard deviation is the:
    1. mean.
    2. mode.
    3. average.
    4. variance.
        
17. Phenotypic variance (var P) is what function of genetic variance (var G) and environmental variance (var E)?
    1. sum:  var G + var E
    2. difference:  var G - var E
    3. product:  var G x var E
    4. quotient:  var G / var E
        
18. Heritability (h²) may defined as which relation between genetic variance (var G or var A) and phenotypic variance (var P)?
    1. var G + var P
    2. var G - var P
    3. var G x var P
    4. var G / var P
        
19. Heritability (h²) may also be defined by what relation between selection differential (S) and response to selection (R)?
    1. R + S
    2. R - S
    3. R x S
    4. R / S
        
20. In "truncation selection" (see Fig. 4-10), the difference between the original population mean and the mean of those which reproduce is called the:
    1. environmental variance.
    2. genetic variance.
    3. selection differential.
    4. response to selection.
        
21. In "truncation selection" (see Fig. 4-10), the difference between the mean of the original population and the mean of the next generation after selection is called the:
    1. environmental variance.
    2. genetic variance.
    3. selection differential.
    4. response to selection.
        
22. If a trait is strongly selected, genetic variation will be reduced due to fixation of advantageous alleles.  As a result, additive genetic variance will be ___ and heritability will be ____ .
    1. ... var A increased ... heritability increased ...
    2. ... var A increased ... heritability decreased ...
    3. ... var A decreased ... heritability increased ...
    4. ... var A decreased ... heritability decreased ...
        
23. Traits with higher heritabilities respond to selection:
    1. faster.
    2. slower.
    3. Heritability does not affect the response to selection.
        
24. TRUE or FALSE:  Heritability is a measure of the extent to which a trait is determined by genes.
    1. true
    2. false
        
25. For traits which show high heritability, the shift in population mean after strong directional selection over many generations:
    1. cannot exceed the standard deviation (square root of variance) of the original population.
    2. can be many times the standard deviation of the original population.
        
26. Heritability measures apply only to the particular population and environment in which they are taken.  The heritability of a trait in a small, local, inbred population is likely to be ___ that in a large, widespread, outbreeding population.
    1. ... lower than ...
    2. ... higher than ...
    3. ... the same as ...
        
       
27. TRUE or FALSE:  If heritability of a trait is high within each of two populations, the difference in mean trait value between those two populations indicates a genetic difference between the two.
    1. true
    2. false
        
28. A Quantitative Trait Locus (QTL) for a trait is a chromosomal site which:
    1. contributes to quantitative genetic variation in that trait.
    2. determines the phenotypic value for a trait.
    3. has a measured DNA sequence length.
        

• Also see questions 4.1, 4.2, and 4.3 at the end of Chapter 4 (p. 92).
  (Answers to end-of-chapter questions.)

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 5.  (Notes for Chapter 5)

See end-of-chapter questions, p. 111.  (Hints)

1. The genetic term "wild type" refers to an individual in which alleles at each locus :
   1. are natural.
   2. combine into unique chromosomal haplotypes.
   3. correspond to predominant alleles in a natural population.
   4. have not mutated.
       
2. Measurement (in mice, humans, and Drosophila) of deleterious mutations suggests that mutations of large effect occur at a rate of about:
   1. 1 in 10 gametes.
   2. 1 in 1000 gametes.
   3. 1 in 100,000 gametes.
   4. 1 in 10,000,000 gametes.
       
3. Measurement (in humans and Drosophila) of mildly deleterious mutations suggests that recessive mutations of small effect occur at a rate of about:
   1. 1 in each zygote.
   2. 1 in 1000 zygotes.
   3. 1 in 1,000,000 zygotes.
   4. 1 in 1,000,000,000 zygotes.
       
4. Mutation rates are commonly:
   1. higher in males than in females.
   2. higher in females than in males.
   3. the same in both sexes.
       
5. Haplotypes are:
   1. haploid multi-locus genotypes.
   2. multiploid haplo-locus genotypes.
   3. genoid haplo-locus multitypes.
   4. haploid geno-locus multitypes.
      (Ain't jargon fun?)
       
6. The proportion of a population which is heterozygous at a particular locus is called:
   1. haplo-diploidy.
   2. heterozygosity.
   3. heterosis.
   4. frequency dependence.
       
7. The average proportion of loci which are heterozygous in an individual is called:
   1. haplo-diploidy.
   2. heterozygosity.
   3. heterosis.
   4. frequency dependence.
       
8. Measures of molecular polymorphism detected levels of genetic diversity which were:
   1. consistent with previous expectations.
   2. much lower than previously expected.
   3. much higher than previously expected.
       
9. The neutral theory of molecular genetic variation is associated with the name of:
   1. Darwin.
   2. Mendel.
   3. Kimura.
   4. Hardy and Weinberg.
       
10. Measured levels of molecular genetic variation can be explained:
    1. better by genetic drift (neutral evolution).
    2. better by adaptive evolution.
    3. both by genetic drift and by selection.
        
11. If u is the rate at which neutral mutations appear in an individual locus, and N is the population size, what is the theoretical rate at which neutral mutations at the locus drift to fixation within the population?
    1. Nu
    2. 2Nu
    3. u / 2N
    4. u
        
12. In the equation for mutation-selection balance with a dominant mutation, q = u / s , the variable u stands for:
    1. allele frequency.
    2. heterozygote advantage.
    3. selection coefficient.
    4. mutation rate.
        
13. In the equation for mutation-selection balance with a dominant mutation, q = u / s , the variable s stands for:
    1. allele frequency.
    2. heterozygote advantage.
    3. selection coefficient.
    4. mutation rate.
        
14. If a recessive lethal (fitness = 0) mutation occurs at a rate of 10^-6 per gene per generation, what is the expected frequency of the mutant allele at mutation-selection equilibrium? q = square root ( u / s )
    1. 1 in 100
    2. 1 in 1000
    3. 1 in 10,000
    4. 1 in 100,000
    5. 1 in 1,000,000
        
15. If a recessive lethal (fitness = 0) mutation occurs at a rate of 10^-6 per gene per generation, what is the expected frequency of the disease (homozygous genotype) at mutation-selection equilibrium? q = square root ( u / s )
    1. 1 in 100
    2. 1 in 1000
    3. 1 in 10,000
    4. 1 in 100,000
    5. 1 in 1,000,000
        
16. If a dominant lethal (fitness = 0) mutation occurs at a rate of 10^-6 per gene per generation, what is the expected frequency of the mutant allele at mutation-selection equilibrium? q = u / s
    1. 1 in 100
    2. 1 in 1000
    3. 1 in 10,000
    4. 1 in 100,000
    5. 1 in 1,000,000
        
17. Deleterious mutations may be retained at appreciable frequency within a population by:
    1. mutation-drift balance.
    2. mutation-selection balance.
    3. heterosis (heterozygote advantage).
    4. frequency-dependent selection.
        
18. The frequency at which mutation-selection balance maintains alleles associated with a deleterious phenotype is:
    1. greater for dominant than recessive alleles.
    2. greater for recessive alleles than for dominant alleles.
    3. unaffected by allele dominance.
        
19. If a genetic disease is caused by a recessive allele, and the disease occurs in 1 in 4000 individuals, what is the frequency of the recessive allele in the population?
    1. 1 in 63
    2. 1 in 200
    3. 1 in 400
    4. 1 in 4000
       Oops!  This question as originally posted had no correct answer.  My arithmetic skills leave a bit to be desired.  
        
20. The alleles which cause certain human genetic diseases, including sickle-cell anemia and cystic fibrosis, occur at relatively high frequencies.  It is believed that such high frequencies reflect conditions of:
    1. mutation-drift balance.
    2. mutation-selection balance.
    3. heterosis (heterozygote advantage).
    4. frequency-dependent selection.
        
21. Under conditions of heterozygote advantage, the equilibrium allele frequencies depend most directly on:
    1. the selection coefficient of the lower-frequency homozygote.
    2. the selection coefficient of the higher-frequency homozygote.
    3. the selection coefficient of the heterozygote.
    4. the proportion by which selection coefficient of the heterozygote exceeds that of the more-fit homozygote.
        
22. When two or more alleles are maintained at fairly high frequencies because the fitness of each genotype depends on on the prevalence within the population of other genotypes, this condition is called:
    1. mutation-drift balance.
    2. mutation-selection balance.
    3. heterosis (heterozygote advantage).
    4. frequency-dependent selection.
        

Also see end-of-chapter questions 5.1, 5.2, 5.3 and 5.4 (page 111).  (Hints for end-of-chapter questions.)

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

We shall skip over Chapter 6.  (Notes for Chapter 6)

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 7.  (Notes for Chapter 7)

1. What is the genetic cost of sex?
   1. 95%
   2. 90%
   3. 50%
   4. 10%
   5. 5%
       
2. The condition of reproducing with unequal gametes (e.g., eggs and sperm) is called :
   1. diploidy.
   2. haploidy.
   3. haplo-diploidy.
   4. meiosis
   5. anisogamy.
       
3. Genetic recombination in procaryotes involves:
   1. zygote formation.
   2. haplontic reproduction.
   3. diplontic reproduction.
   4. conjugation (with unequal exchange of genetic material).
   5. apomixis.
       
4. A life cycle in which sexual reproduction alternates with asexual reproduction is called:
   1. haplontic.
   2. diplontic.
   3. cyclical parthenogenesis
   4. apomixis.
      

For a written question about the advantages and disadvantages of sex, see Additional Exam Questions.

 Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 8.  (Notes for Chapter 8)

FOR QUESTIONS 1 through 3, choose the member of each pair which would confer greater fitness, presuming no other considerations.  That is, in competition, which trait would be expected to confer greater reproductive success?

1. Number of offspring during each reproductive cycle:
   1. more offspring
   2. fewer offspring
      

2. Length of time from birth to first reproductive cycle:
   1. longer time to maturity
   2. shorter time to maturity
         
3. Life span (total number of reproductive cycles after maturity):
   1. longer life span
   2. shorter life span
       
      *****
      FOR QUESTIONS 4 through 10, choose the member of each trait pair which would result as a tradeoff from the listed change.
       
4. Increase investment of resources in each individual offspring:
   1. more offspring.
   2. fewer offspring.
       
5. Decrease investment of resources in each individual offspring:
   1. greater probability of survival for each offspring.
   2. lower probability of survival for each offspring.
       
6. Increase number of offspring in a given reproductive cycle:
   1. increased probability of future reproduction by the same parent.
   2. reduced probability of future reproduction by the same parent.
       
7. Increase number of offspring in a given reproductive cycle
1. greater probability of survival for each offspring.
2. lower probability of survival for each offspring.
      
8. Decrease time to maturation:
   1. smaller mature body size, fewer and/or smaller offspring.
   2. larger mature body size, more and/or larger offspring
       
9. Increase lifespan:
   1. reduced resources devoted to reproduction.
   2. increased resources devoted to reproduction.
         
10. Increase mature body size, increased number of offspring:
    1. more resources needed to reach maturity.
    2. reduced resources needed to reach maturity.
          
       *****
        
11. Which term refers to the balance between costs and benefits?
    1. optimality
    2. allopatry
    3. heterogamy
    4. pleiotropy
        
12. If natural selection has optimized a trait, a quantitative increase in that trait would be expected to:
    1. increase fitness.
    2. decrease fitness.
    3. have no effect on fitness.
        
13. If natural selection has optimized a trait, a quantitative decrease in that trait would be expected to:
    1. increase fitness.
    2. decrease fitness.
    3. have no effect on fitness.
        
14. A gene which affects two or more different traits is said to have:
    1. optimal effect.
    2. allopatric effect.
    3. heterogamic effect.
    4. pleiotropic effect.
          
15. Genes which show antagonistic pleiotropy are those whose genetic effects cause:
    1. increased fitness in two or more traits.
    2. decreased fitness in two or more traits.
    3. increased fitness through one trait at the expense of decreased fitness through another trait.
          
16. A co-evolutionary process in which a predator species evolves more effective means of predation while its prey species evolves more effective means of defense is called an evolutionary:
    1. tradeoff.
    2. mutualism.
    3. arms race.
        
17. The phrase "Lack clutch size" refers to:
    1. the maximal number of eggs which a female bird can produce during one nesting season.
    2. the minimum number of eggs which will assure perpetuation of the species.
    3. the optimum number of eggs which will maximize the number of fledglings.
        
18. Most species have a characteristic life span which results from tradeoffs between reproduction and survival.  Selection is expected to favor shifting resources away from immediate reproduction in order to increase life span only when the probability of survival from one reproductive season to the next is:
    1. high.
    2. low.
    3. optimal
    4. pleiotropic.
        
19. R.A. Fisher attributed the prevalence of 50:50 sex ratios to:
    1. frequency dependent selection.
    2. haplo-diploidy.
    3. directional selection.
    4. disruptive selection
          

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 9.  (Notes for Chapter 9)

1. Competition for access to mates (usually among males) is responsible for a process called:
   1. sexual cannibalism.
   2. sexual reproduction.
   3. sexual recombination.
   4. sexual selection.
       
2. Mate choice (usually by females) is responsible for a process called:
   1. sexual cannibalism.
   2. sexual reproduction.
   3. sexual recombination.
   4. sexual selection.
       
3. The "sexy son hypothesis" and the "handicap hypothesis" both relate to reasons underlying:
   1. competition for mates.
   2. mate choice.

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 10.  (Notes for Chapter 10)

Chapter 10 shall not be evaluated for course offered Spring term, 2003.

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 11.  (Notes for Chapter 11)   

1. Most actual species are identified in practice by:
   1. demonstrated genetic isolation from other populations.
   2. distinct morphological, behavioral, and/or genetic characteristics.
   3. demonstrated descent from a single ancestral population.
       
2. The concept of species:
   1. is difficult to define, with considerable disagreement over the most suitable criteria.
   2. must be defined in terms of reproductive isolation.
   3. must be defined in terms of ecological niche.
   4. must be defined in terms of descent from a single ancestral population
   5. must be defined in terms of morphological, behavioral and/or genetic characteristics.
       
3. One of the most popular species concepts, often called the "biological species concept", is based on:
   1. geographic isolation.
   2. ecological isolation.
   3. reproductive isolation.
   4. morphology.
       
4. The "biological species concept" is commonly attributed to:
   1. Carolus Linnaeus.
   2. Charles Darwin.
   3. Ernst Mayr.
   4. Stephen Jay Gould.
   5. James Watson.
       
5. Which of the following does NOT create some difficulty for the "biological species concept"?
   1. Asexual organisms.
   2. Interspecies hybridization.
   3. Geographical isolation.
   4. Species-specific mate recognition.
       
6. "Speciation is a by-product of intraspecific evolution" (text, p. 219).  This means that the evolutionary processes which lead to speciation are:
   1. the same as those (adaptation and drift) which operate to produce change within a species.
   2. are fundamentally different from those which operate to produce change within a species.
       
7. "Sibling species" are pairs of species which are:
   1. difficult to distinguish from one another.
   2. not reproductively isolated from one another.
   3. created by inbreeding.
   4. created by hybridization of related species.
       
8. Genetic separation and phenotypic differentiation are two processes involved in:.
   1. hybridization.
   2. speciation.
   3. sexual reproduction.
       
9. The complete absence of gene flow between two populations is called:
   1. hybridization.
   2. sympatry.
   3. allopatry.
   4. reproductive isolation.
   5. speciation.
       
10. Suppose that two populations begin by splitting from a single ancestral population, so that initially each has the same pattern of variation in many different alleles.  Over extended time, genetic drift acting alone [without mutation to introduce new alleles] is expected to:
    1. maintain genetic variation between the populations.
    2. increase genetic variation between the populations.  
    3. reduce or eliminate genetic variation between related populations.
        
11. Processes which prevent mating between members of two different populations are called.
    1. prezygotic (or premating) isolating mechanisms.
    2. postzygotic (or postmating) isolating mechanisms.
    3. hybridization mechanisms.
    4. allopatric isolating mechanism.
    5. sympatric isolating mechanisms.
        
12. Process which prevent successful reproduction after mating between members of two different populations are called:.
    1. prezygotic (or premating) isolating mechanisms.
    2. postzygotic (or postmating) isolating mechanisms.
    3. hybridization mechanisms.
    4. sympatric isolating mechanisms.
    5. allopatric isolating mechanism.
        
13. Genetic incompatibility, such as mismatched numbers of chromosomes, which prevents hybrid offspring from surviving or reproducing, is an example of a:
    1. prezygotic isolating mechanism.
    2. postzygotic isolating mechanism.
        
14. A behavioral trait which assures that only members of one's own population will be recognized as potential mates is an example of a:.
    1. prezygotic isolating mechanism.
    2. postzygotic isolating mechanism.
        
15. The process by which genetic separation and phenotypic differentiation occur between populations which are geographically isolated from one another is called:
    1. sympatric speciation.
    2. allopatric speciation.
    3. reinforcement.
        
16. The process by which genetic separation and phenotypic differentiation occur between populations which share the same geographic range is called:
    1. sympatric speciation.
    2. allopatric speciation.
    3. reinforcement.
        
17. The process whereby two incompletely-isolated populations evolve more-effective genetic isolating mechanisms, on the basis of selection against the reduced fitness associated with cross-breeding, is called.
    1. sympatric speciation.
    2. allopatric speciation
    3. reinforcement.
        
18. Host shifts in phytophagous insects, divergence in flowering time in plants, and polyploidy are all plausible mechanisms for:
    1. secondary reinforcement.
    2. increasing gene flow.
    3. adaptive hybridization.
    4. sympatric speciation.
        

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 12.  (Notes for Chapter 12)

1. Evolutionary convergence, parallelism, or reversal is the basis for:
   1. homology.
   2. homoplasy.
   3. plesiomorphy.
   4. synapomorphy.
       
2. Morphological structures in different taxa which share the same relative position, are built by the same developmental pathways, and (at least by hypothesis) derive their similarity from structures in a common ancestor are called:.
   1. analogies.
   2. convergences.
   3. homoplasies.
   4. homologies.
       
3. Plesiomorphy and synapomorphy are both terms which refer types of:
   1. homologous similarity.
   2. homoplasious similarity.
   3. convergence.
   4. divergence.
       
4. Homology based on recent shared ancestry, characterizing a monophyletic group, is called:
   1. homoplasy.
   2. parsimony.
   3. plesiomorphy.
   4. synapomorphy.
       
5. Homology based on distant ancestry, associated with paraphyly:
   1. homoplasy.
   2. parsimony.
   3. plesiomorphy.
   4. synapomorphy..
       
6. A taxonomic group which contains all of the species descended a common ancestor is described as:
   1. monophyletic.
   2. polyphyletic.
   3. paraphyletic.
       
       
7. A taxonomic group which contains some but not all of the species descended from the most recent common ancestor of all the members of the group is described as:
   1. monophyletic.
   2. polyphyletic.
   3. paraphyletic.
       
8. A taxonomic group which contains species descended from several different ancestors that are also ancestors of species classified into other groups is described as:
   1. monophyletic.
   2. polyphyletic.
   3. paraphyletic.
       
9. In cladistic classification, all taxonomic groups should be:
   1. monophyletic.
   2. polyphyletic.
   3. paraphyletic.
       
10. Attempts to deduce phylogenetic trees by comparing the similarities and differences among species are often confounded by numerous homoplasies.  The hypothesis that the "best" tree is that tree which requires the fewest homoplasies (occurrences of convergence, parallelism, or reversal) is called the principle of.
    1. cluster analysis.
    2. neighbor joining.
    3. bootstrapping.
    4. parsimony.
        
11. In cladistic methods for deducing phylogenetic trees, each monophyletic group should be characterized by at least one:
    1. synapomorphy.
    2. plesiomorphy.
    3. homoplasy.
    4. parsimony.
    5. autopolyploidy.
        
12. Processes of mutation and drift lead to the accumulation of molecular differences between reproductively isolated populations.  The (hypothetical) accumulation of such changes at statistically predictable rates is called the:
    1. meiotic drive.
    2. molecular clock.
    3. reaction norm.
    4. canalization of mutation.
        
13. The molecular clock leads to an approximate correlation of sequence divergence with:
    1. homology.
    2. time since common ancestory.
    3. taxonomic rank.
    4. sequence complexity.
        
14. Methods for deducing phylogenetic trees based on extent of molecular sequence divergence are called:
    1. phylogenetic methods.
    2. molecular methods.
    3. parsimony methods.
    4. distance methods.
        

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 13.  (Notes for Chapter 13)

1. Which lists shows the correct order from oldest to most recent?
   1. Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic.
   2. Cenozoic, Paleozoic, Mesozoic.
   3. Mesozoic, Cenozoic, Paleozoic.
   4. Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Cenozoic..
   5. Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic.
   6. Paleozoic, Cenozoic, Mesozoic..
       
2. The Mesozoic Era began about:
   1. 930 mya.
   2. 570 mya.
   3. 250 mya.
   4. 150 mya.
   5. 65 mya.
       
3. The Paleozoic Era began about:
   1. 930 mya.
   2. 570 mya.
   3. 250 mya.
   4. 150 mya.
   5. 65 mya.
    
4. The Cenozoic Era began about:
   1. 930 mya.
   2. 570 mya.
   3. 250 mya.
   4. 150 mya.
   5. 65 mya.
       
5. The root "cen-" (as in Cenozoic and Holocene) means:
   1. old.
   2. ancient.
   3. early.
   4. dawn.
   5. recent.
       
6. Paleocene, Eocene, Oligocene, Miocene, Pliocene, and Pleistocene are all periods in which era?
   1. Paleozoic.
   2. Mesozoic.
   3. Cenozoic.
       
7. Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous, and Permian are all periods in which era?
   1. Paleozoic.
   2. Mesozoic.
   3. Cenozoic.
    
8. Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous are all periods in which era?
   1. Paleozoic.
   2. Mesozoic.
   3. Cenozoic.
       
9. The great Permian extinction occurred approximately:
   1. 930 mya.
   2. 570 mya.
   3. 250 mya.
   4. 150 mya.
   5. 65 mya.
       
10. The great Cretaceous extinction occurred approximately:
    1. 930 mya.
    2. 570 mya.
    3. 250 mya.
    4. 150 mya.
    5. 65 mya.
        
11. Tertiary is another name for:
    1. Paleozoic.
    2. Mesozoic.
    3. Cenozoic.
          
12. The "Age of Dinosaurs" is the:
    1. Paleozoic.
    2. Mesozoic.
    3. Cenozoic.
        
13. Dinosaurs died off at the end of the:
    1. Permian.
    2. Devonian.
    3. Jurassic.
    4. Cretaceous.
    5. Holocene.
        
14. The "Age of Mammals" is the:
    1. Paleozoic.
    2. Mesozoic.
    3. Cenozoic.
          
15. Trilobites are characteristic fossils of the:
    1. Paleozoic.
    2. Mesozoic.
    3. Cenozoic.
        
16. Which lists shows the correct order from oldest to most recent?
    1. Miocene, Pliocene, Pleistocene, Oligocene.
    2. Miocene, Pliocene, Oligocene, Pleistocene.
    3. Miocene, Oligocene, Pliocene, Pleistocene.
    4. Oligocene, Pleistocene, Miocene, Pliocene.
    5. Oligocene, Miocene, Pliocene, Pleistocene.
        
17. Which lists shows the correct order from oldest to most recent?
    1. Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous.
    2. Triassic, Cretaceous, Jurassic.
    3. Jurassic, Triassic, Cretaceous.
    4. Jurassic, Cretaceous, Triassic.
    5. Cretaceous, Triassic, Jurassic.
        
18. Which lists shows the correct order from oldest to most recent?
    1. Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian, Devonian.
    2. Cambrian, Devonian, Silurian, Ordovician.
    3. Cambrian, Silurian, Ordovician, Devonian.
    4. Ordovician, Cambrian, Devonian, Silurian
    5. Ordovician, Silurian, Devonian, Cambrian.
        
19. Which preceded the Paleocene?
    1. Eocene.
    2. Permian.
    3. Cretaceous.
    4. Devonian.
    5. Precambrian.
        
20. Which preceded the Triassic?
    1. Eocene.
    2. Permian.
    3. Cretaceous.
    4. Devonian.
    5. Precambrian.
        
21. Which preceded the Cambrian?
    1. Eocene.
    2. Permian.
    3. Cretaceous.
    4. Devonian.
    5. Precambrian.
        
22. The relatively sudden and widespread appearance of fossils representing most extant phyla characterizes the:
    1. Permian / Triassic boundary.
    2. Cretaceous / Paleocene boundary.
    3. Ordovician / Silurian boundary.
    4. Precambrian / Cambrian boundary.
    5. Pleistocene / Holocene boundary.
        
23. The most recent retreat of continental glaciers characterizes the:
    1. Permain / Triassic boundary.
    2. Cretaceous / Paleocene boundary.
    3. Ordovician / Silurian boundary.
    4. Precambrian / Cambrian boundary.
    5. Pleistocene / Holocene boundary.
        
24. Fossil evidence of mammals first appears during the:
    1. Paleozoic.
    2. Mesozoic.
    3. Cenozoic.
        
25. According to the hypothesis of punctuated equilibrium (as described in our text), most evolutionary change occurs:
    1. during speciation events.
    2. throughout species' the entire duration.
        
26. According to the hypothesis of punctuated equilibrium (as described in our text), the duration of most species' existance, between speciation events, is marked by:
    1. sporadic change.
    2. continuous change.
    3. stasis.

List an order, class, or phylum of animals whose first fossils appear record during the Paleozoic Era.
List an order, class, or phylum of animals whose first fossils appear record during the Mesozoic Era.
List an order, class, or phylum of animals whose first fossils appear record during the Cenozoic Era.

See Table on text pages 265-268; your choice of taxon.

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 14.  (Notes for Chapter 14)

List five "key events in evolution", according to textbook list.

See text page 281 and following; list any five.

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 15.  (Notes for Chapter 15)

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 16.  (Notes for Chapter 16)

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Study questions for Chapter 17.  (Notes for Chapter 17)

Questions for Chapter 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13 / 14 / 15 / 16 / 17

Additional Exam Questions

Additional Exam Questions.  Please be prepared to provide written answers equivalent to those given with each question below.

NOTE:  All of these written questions are fair-game for the final exam.

What is selection?

Selection is the correlation of hereditary variation with variation in reproductive success.  
 
The word "fitness" may be substitituted for "reproductive success", but ONLY if fitness is correctly defined elsewhere.  Other variations on this explanation are acceptable.  But any full-credit answer must refer to heredity and to reproduction, to variation in both, and to a relationship between them.  Especially appreciated would be an answer based on the final paragraph in Darwin's Origin:

"These laws, taken in the largest sense, being Growth with Reproduction; inheritance which is almost implied by reproduction; Variability from the indirect and direct action of the external conditions of life, and from use and disuse; a Ratio of Increase so high as to lead to a Struggle for Life, and as a consequence to Natural Selection, entailing Divergence of Character and the Extinction of less-improved forms."

What is adaptive evolution?

Adaptive evolution is genetic change in a population due to the correlation of hereditary variation with variation in reproductive success.  

NOTE:  The word "selection" may be substituted for "the correlation ... success", in the answer above, but ONLY if selection has been correctly defined (see preceding question) elsewhere on the same exam paper.  Other variations may also be acceptable, as long the three central ideas are included in proper relation.  As for the preceding question, especially appreciated would be an answer based on the final paragraph in Darwin's Origin:

"These laws, taken in the largest sense, being Growth with Reproduction; inheritance which is almost implied by reproduction; Variability from the indirect and direct action of the external conditions of life, and from use and disuse; a Ratio of Increase so high as to lead to a Struggle for Life, and as a consequence to Natural Selection, entailing Divergence of Character and the Extinction of less-improved forms."

What is neutral evolution?

Neutral evolution is genetic change in a population which is due to random processes [or, which is NOT due to selection].

What is fitness?

Fitness is relative reproductive success.

What is genetic drift?

Genetic drift is the long-term accumulation of neutral genetic change due to statistical fluctuations in allele frequencies within any population.  Genetic drift has two important effects.

• Genetic drift leads to the long-term reduction in genetic variation within a population.
• Genetic drift leads to the long-term accumulation of genetic variation among related populations.

What is the molecular clock?

The molecular clock is the random but statistically predictable accumulation of neutral genetic differences (particularly single-base substitutions) among related populations.

List the sources of genetic change (change in allele frequencies, or change in hereditary traits) in a population.  (All of the following must be included for full credit.)

1. mutation
2. selection
3. random statistical variation or genetic drift (or, all together as one, the "Mendelian lottery", bottlenecks, founder effect)
4. migration (or gene flow)

List at least three processes which can maintain genetic variation in a population.

1. mutation - selection balance
2. mutation - drift balance
3. migration (or gene flow)
4. heterozygote advantage
5. frequency-dependent selection
6. fluctuating environmental conditions

Diagram the process of directional selection [and/or stabilizing selection], using three graphs with labelled X-Y axes to show fitness vs. trait value, trait frequency vs. trait value before selection, and trait frequency vs. trait value after selection.

See text figure 2-9, p. 48.

List three disadvantages for sexual reproduction AND three advantages for sexual reproduction.

Disadvantages	Advantages
Sex has a huge 50% (or two-fold) genetic cost. Sex is difficult (finding a mate can be complex, risky, and consume resources). Sexual recombination can destroy favorable gene combinations.	Sexual recombination can create favorable gene combinations (and thus increase the speed of evolution). Sexual recombination can faciliate the elimination of mutations (and thus avoid "Muller's rachet"). Sexual recombination can create variation (which can help reduce the impact of parasitism).

List an order, class, or phylum of animals whose first fossils appear record during the Paleozoic Era.
List an order, class, or phylum of animals whose first fossils appear record during the Mesozoic Era.
List an order, class, or phylum of animals whose first fossils appear record during the Cenozoic Era.

See Table on text pages 265-268; your choice of taxon.

List five "key events in evolution", according to textbook list.

See text page 281 and following; list any five.

 

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